Regarding the letter 'Gujarat riot justice' (Sunday Morning Post, March 14), it is a travesty of truth to say that the retaliation was backed by the government.
The situation in those four months, especially in central and south Gujarat (where the riots were centred), was quite grave and the state government did all it could to establish control. Even a neutral magazine, India Today, said countless Muslim lives were saved by the police. About Bilqis Yakoob Rasool, the case is still in court and it would not be fair for me to comment.
However, let's say for argument's sake that the accused had links with the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and were found guilty, it does not mean that the leadership of the ruling party gave a directive for the crime. In China, many senior members of the Communist Party have been executed for corruption, but it does not mean the entire party was corrupt. It is obvious that the Gujarat offences will be regarded as individual crimes.
A March 1 article in the Post says that more Muslims are going to vote for the BJP in the coming elections. Would this be possible if the party was anti-Muslim? If the BJP had any hand in the Gujarat incidents, why would more Muslims vote for it?
LAXMI SADANI, Hunghom